Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 26.06.2025 09:24
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
DNA from 9,000-year-old skeletons disproves migratory waves theory from South Africa - Earth.com
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Treasury yields tick higher after latest U.S. jobs data release - CNBC
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.